Is the concern about fairness in women's sports legitimate? If not, why don't you explain data supporting the assertion that there is no difference between FAAB and MAAB women in sports in terms of outcomes. Or provide something to the discussion other than calling people bigots. Picking fights like this is not helping trans women nor do…
Is the concern about fairness in women's sports legitimate? If not, why don't you explain data supporting the assertion that there is no difference between FAAB and MAAB women in sports in terms of outcomes. Or provide something to the discussion other than calling people bigots. Picking fights like this is not helping trans women nor does it advance the discussion. It's just trying to score points.
You have identified the implied assertion in his comments. I am curious as to why the fairness of MAAB and FAAB men in sports in terms of outcomes is not similarly questioned in society. What unexamined assumption is in play here?
I would assume that would put FAAB men at a disadvantage in their respective leagues. Though that assumption might be inaccurate if you look at more data, or it may only be inaccurate for certain sports (e.g. skating, equestrian, gymnastics). I just think we are at the beginning of this debate and there is not a lot of evidence one way or the other. People are operating on assumption.
Your embedded assertion is that there is no difference between FAAB and MAAB women in sports in terms of outcomes. Yet you have provided no support. You have only heaped scorn, which sorry, is no substitute for a well-reasoned argument.
Is the concern about fairness in women's sports legitimate? If not, why don't you explain data supporting the assertion that there is no difference between FAAB and MAAB women in sports in terms of outcomes. Or provide something to the discussion other than calling people bigots. Picking fights like this is not helping trans women nor does it advance the discussion. It's just trying to score points.
You have identified the implied assertion in his comments. I am curious as to why the fairness of MAAB and FAAB men in sports in terms of outcomes is not similarly questioned in society. What unexamined assumption is in play here?
I would assume that would put FAAB men at a disadvantage in their respective leagues. Though that assumption might be inaccurate if you look at more data, or it may only be inaccurate for certain sports (e.g. skating, equestrian, gymnastics). I just think we are at the beginning of this debate and there is not a lot of evidence one way or the other. People are operating on assumption.
Denying all women access to something is about fairness and it is bigoted to deny women access based on how they were born.
Your embedded assertion is that there is no difference between FAAB and MAAB women in sports in terms of outcomes. Yet you have provided no support. You have only heaped scorn, which sorry, is no substitute for a well-reasoned argument.
Why should I address an arbitrary idea like that? All women should be allowed to compete in women's sports. That is pretty clear reasoning